The Common Claim: Jesus never addressed homosexuality! In fact Christians are often accused of making a big deal out of something Jesus never talked about even once!
Answer: As described in Part 1, Jesus indeed spoke about homosexuality as a member of the Godhead.
He repeated himself in Matthew 5:27-32, and 19:4-9. In Matthew 5, he based his statements on what is found on Genesis 2, and Genesis 2, tells how the man and the woman were created for the purposes of not just companionship but for the purposes of procreation (which should be obvious) and Illustration. Every new baby is a living illustration of the procreation intent of God. Every new child is either male or female. Each sex is specifically designed for union with the other.
He also created Adam and Eve for the purpose of sanctification. The deep, inner desires of men and women, to be physically, intimately and emotionally loved is to be satisfied within the context of biblical marriage. When the time was right God would also hand down a commandment to live by, “Thou Shalt Not Commit Adultery.”
Notice how that commandment isn’t pointed to just one of the two sexes. That’s because he wanted both to know his expectation that when a man and a woman became one flesh it would be for their entire lives. There is no room for Adam, Bill and Eve; or Adam and Steve; Jill and Mary; or Eve, Mary and John; only Adam and Eve. In the final analysis the one flesh union between a man and a woman were intended to be a spiritual, emotional and a physical union.
Note the use of specific terms in Genesis 2:21-24, like man, father, woman, mother, and wife. They make it very clear God made the two sexes for very clear reasons. Human anatomy as well makes it very clear what the two sexes and the “one flesh” union is all about. It is about men and women leading to children.
But along comes the question born of the serpent meant which stops some Christians in their tracks that asks: “But what about two married but old people or a childless couple? They can’t or maybe haven’t procreated so aren’t they breaking God’s law?” No. That’s because each of them still represents categorically the two halves of humanity God created. Yes the elderly couple are beyond childbearing years and the childless couple have not or cannot have children; but both pairs still reflect categorically God’s intention of what human sexuality is all about. So categorically they still belong together even though they’re in advanced years or are childless. That means couples that divorce only because they cannot have children are committing a sin. Didn’t they take a vow before God to remain together “..until death do us part.”?
So homosexuality disrupts the creation intent. It obliterates the illustration intent; and it denies sanctification by calling what God calls evil good.
God is the author and definer of marriage not man! He created it for the three key reasons cited above but above those three he created it for his glory. Therefore #1: man does not have the right to define marriage nor #2: the right to introduce a concept of marriage outside of God’s definition of it.
Then we have the accounts of the New Testament apostles who compliment that truth and repeated in their ministries what Jesus taught based on the Old Testament. So for someone to claim that the Old Testament laws against homosexuality are no longer relevant to the New Testament displays a Grand Canyon wide ignorance of the holy text. Then there’s the typical response that “that’s your interpretation!” which comes from either an ignorant or illiterate person, or one that intends to continue to blindly defy God because they really don’t believe in him nor the punishment he has told us over and over and over again from Genesis to Revelation that he will dish out to those who never repent and forsake the LGBQT lifestyle. See, the Holy Bible is one unit, one continuous story, not 66 different stories.
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